Excuse my low iq please. It is like i understand it (maybe not) but I'm not convinced it is true. I mean why do we add exactly number 1. When I searched about that the answer is that we need a number that can't divide the prime numbers in the list. Yeah but why? I mean we forced something a number can't do, why does it assure us that there are infinite prime numbers?
I know my question is not that understandable but I really don't understand why that proof is true?
Edit: Thank you all for the replies and anyone who helped. I got it now. Thank you all I appreciate your help :)